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UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2018 with Explanation

UPSC Prelims Answer Key – GS Paper 1 (All Sets)

Question NoSET ASET BSET CSET D
1BDBA
2DACD
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6CBCB
7ABAD
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10AABD
11CBAB
12DDAD
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14DBCC
15CCDC
16ABBB
17CBBD
18DCBC
19ACAB
20BABA
21BCCC
22BCDA
23ABCD
24BABC
25BDCA
26DADC
27DCAD
28ACCD
29ACAD
30ADBC
31ABBB
32ACBB
33ABBC
34CADC
35DAAA
36BCBC
37BADC
38BACB
39ADBA
40BBCD
41CBAA
42DDDC
43CCBC
44BBBC
45CAAD
46BCBD
47BADA
48CDDC
49CCCA
50AADB
51CCBB
52CDDB
53BDBB
54ADCD
55DCCA
56AABB
57CABD
58CACC
59CCCB
60DDAC
61ABCA
62DBCC
63BBBD
64BAAA
65ABDB
66BCAB
67DDCB
68DCCA
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71BAAD
72DDCD
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74CBAA
75CABA
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80BDBA
81BBDC
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83BBAA
84DCAD
85ACAB
86BABA
87DCDA
88CDCA
89BABC
90CBAD
91BBCB
92CBAB
93BADB
94ABCA
95ABAB
96CDCC
97ADDD
98AADC
99DADB
100BACC
Here, we are providing the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2018 for GS Paper 1 with detailed explanations for the aspirants. This will help the candidates in tallying the answers to know their scores and start preparation for Mains freely.
We are uploading here the UPSC Prelims Answer Key: (Set – B)
Update #3 (01 to 35)
1. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: • The East India Company began to adopt a dual policy in the sphere of education. It discouraged the prevalent system of oriental education and gave importance to western education and English language.
• The Charter Act of 1813 adopted a provision to spend one lakh rupees per annum for the spread of education in India.
• Although there was a prolonged debate pertaining to education during the course of a general discussion on the Act of 1813 in the British Parliament, yet the matter continued to generate debate for the next 20 years. Consequently, not even a single penny out of the allocated funds could be spent on education.
• The contemporary British scholars were divided into two groups on the issue of development of education in India. One group, called the Orientalists, advocated the promotion of oriental subjects through Indian languages. The other group, called the Anglicists, argued the cause of western sciences and literature in the medium of English language.
• In 1829, after assuming the office of the Governor-General of India, Lord William Bentinck, emphasized on the medium of English language in Indian education.
• In the beginning of 1835, the 10 members of the General Committee of Public Instruction were clearly divided into two equal groups.
• Five members including the Chairman of the committee Lord Macaulay were in favour of adopting English as medium of public instruction whereas the other five were in favour of oriental languages.
• The stalemate continued till 2 February 1835 when the Chairman of the committee, Lord Macaulay announced his famous Minute advocating the Anglicist point of view.
• Consequently, despite fierce opposition from all quarters, Bentinck got the resolution passed on 7 March 1835 which declared that henceforth, government funds would be utilized for the promotion of western literature and science through the medium of English language.
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/1857-revoltevolution-of-education-of-press-administration-before-1857

2. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Utrarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Ans-a
Exp-Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from USA. The lake is said to be Kodaikanal’s most popular geographic landmark and tourist attraction.

3. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL). Under this Scheme, Training and Assessment fees are completely paid by the Government.
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
Approved for another four years (2016-2020) to benefit 10 million youth. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL). Under this Scheme, Training and Assessment fees are completely paid by the Government.
Key Components of the Scheme:
1. Short Term Training
The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Duration of the training varies per job role, ranging between 150 and 300 hours. Upon successful completion of their assessment, candidates shall be provided placement assistance by Training Partners (TPs). Under PMKVY, the entire training and assessment fees are paid by the Government. Payouts shall be provided to the TPs in alignment with the Common Norms. Trainings imparted under the Short Term Training component of the Scheme shall be NSQF Level 5 and below.
2. Recognition of Prior Learning
Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF. Project Implementing Agencies (PIAs), such as Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) or any other agencies designated by MSDE/NSDC, shall be incentivized to implement RPL projects in any of the three Project Types (RPL Camps, RPL at Employers Premises and RPL centres). To address knowledge gaps, PIAs may offer Bridge Courses to RPL candidates.
Source: http://iasscore.in/ias-prelims/skill-development-schemes

4. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Ans: a

5. Which among the following events happened earliest?
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first India to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Ans: b
Exp: Arya Samaj is an Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas. The samaj was founded by the sannyasi Dayananda Saraswati on 7 April 1875
Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was published from Dhaka in 1860
Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882.
Satyendranath tagore(first to clear ICS) was selected for the Indian Civil Servicein June, 1863.

6. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: Sand Mining and impact on environment
Sand Mining is an activity referring to the process of the actual removal of sand from the foreshore including rivers, streams and lakes. Sand is mined from beaches and inland dunes and dredged from ocean beds and river beds. A related process is the mining of mineral sands, such as mineral deposits like diamond, gold and silver. These minerals typically occur combined with ordinary sand. The sand is dug up, the valuable minerals are separated in water by using their different density, and the remaining ordinary sand is re-deposited.
Excessive in-stream sand-and-gravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. In-stream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. Any volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system. It is also a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.
In-stream sand mining results in the destruction of aquatic and riparian habitat through large changes in the channel morphology. Impacts include bed degradation, bed coarsening, lowered water tables near the streambed, and channel instability. These physical impacts cause degradation of riparian and aquatic biota and may lead to the undermining of bridges and other structures. Continued extraction may also cause the entire streambed to degrade to the depth of excavation. Sand mining generates extra vehicle traffic, which negatively impairs the environment. Where access roads cross riparian areas, the local environment may be impacted.
In-stream mining can have other costly effects such as many hectares of fertile streamside land are lost annually, as well as valuable timber resources and wildlife habitats in the riparian areas. Degraded stream habitats result in loss of fisheries productivity, biodiversity, and recreational potential. Severely degraded channels may lower land and aesthetic values.
Further all species require specific habitat conditions to ensure long-term survival. Native species in streams are uniquely adapted to the habitat conditions that existed before humans began large-scale alterations. These have caused major habitat disruptions that favored some species over others and caused overall declines in biological diversity and productivity. In most streams and rivers, habitat quality is strongly linked to the stability of channel bed and banks. Unstable stream channels are inhospitable to most aquatic species.
Factors that increase or decrease sediment supplies often destabilize bed and banks and result in dramatic channel readjustments. For example, human activities that accelerate stream bank erosion, such as riparian forest clearing or in-stream mining, cause stream banks to become net sources of sediment that often have severe consequences for aquatic species. Anthropogenic activities that artificially lower stream bed elevation cause bed instabilities that result in a net release of sediment in the local vicinity. Unstable sediments simplify and, therefore, degrade stream habitats for many aquatic species. Few species benefit from these effects.
The most important effects of in-stream sand mining on aquatic habitats are bed degradation and sedimentation, which can have substantial negative effects on aquatic life. The stability of sand-bed and gravel-bed streams depends on a delicate balance between stream-flow, sediment supplied from the watershed, and channel form. Mining-induced changes in sediment supply and channel form disrupt channel and habitat development processes. Furthermore, movement of unstable substrates results in downstream sedimentation of habitats. The affected distance depends on the intensity of mining, particles sizes, stream flows, and channel morphology.
The complete removal of vegetation and destruction of the soil profile destroys habitat both above and below the ground as well as within the aquatic ecosystem, resulting in the reduction in faunal populations.
Also, Channel widening shallows the streambed, producing braided flow or subsurface inter-gravel flow in riffle areas, hindering movement of fishes between pools. Channel reaches become more uniformly shallow as deep pools fill with gravel and other sediments, reducing habitat complexity, riffle-pool structure, and numbers of large predatory fishes.
Apart from it, sand mining transforms the riverbeds into large and deep pits; as a result, the groundwater table drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry. Bed degradation from in-stream mining lowers the elevation of stream flow and the floodplain water table which in turn can eliminate water table-dependent woody vegetation in riparian areas, and decrease wetted periods in riparian wetlands. For locations close to the sea, saline water may intrude into the fresh water body.
In-stream sand mining activities will have an impact upon the river’s water quality. Impacts include increased short-term turbidity at the mining site due to resuspension of sediment, sedimentation due to stockpiling and dumping of excess mining materials and organic particulate matter, and oil spills or leakage from excavation machinery and transportation vehicles.
Increased riverbed and bank erosion increases suspended solids in the water at the excavation site and downstream.
Suspended solids may adversely affect water users and aquatic ecosystems. The impact is particularly significant if water users downstream of the site are abstracting water for domestic use. Suspended solids can significantly increase water treatment costs.
Source: http://iasscore.in/national-issues/sand-mining-and-its-impact

7. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
Exp: “Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.”
• Sulphur Cycle
Sulphur cycle, circulation of sulfur in various forms through nature. Sulphur is key to protein structure and is released to the atmosphere by the burning of fossil fuels. Sulphur occurs in all living matter as a component of certain amino acids. It is abundant in the soil in proteins and, through a series of microbial transformations, ends up as sulphates usable by plants.
Sulphur-containing proteins are degraded into their constituent amino acids by the action of a variety of soil organisms. The sulphur of the amino acids is converted to hydrogen sulphide (H2S) by another series of soil microbes. In the presence of oxygen, H2S is converted to sulfur and then to sulphate by sulfur bacteria. Eventually the sulfate becomes H2S.
Hydrogen sulphide rapidly oxidizes to gases that dissolve in water to form sulphurous and sulphuric acids. These compounds contribute in large part to the “acid rain” that can kill sensitive aquatic organisms and damage marble monuments and stone buildings.
Thus cycle can be divided as:
· Sulphur Cycle in Soils
Sulphur enters the trophic cycle in terrestrial plants via root adsorption in the form of inorganic sulphates (e.g., calcium sulphate, sodium sulphate) or by direct assimilation of amino acids released in the decomposition of dead or excreted organic matter. Bacterial and fungal (Aspergillus and Neurospora) mineralization of the organic sulphhydryl in amino acids followed by oxidation results in sulphate; this adds to the sulphate pool for root adsorption.
· Sulphur Cycle in Atmosphere
Sulphur in the atmosphere comes from several different sources: decomposition and/or combustion of organic matter, combustion of fossil fuels, and ocean surfaces and volcanic eruptions. The most prevalent form of sulphur entering the atmosphere is sulphur dioxide (SO2). It, along with other atmospheric forms such as elemental sulphur and hydrogen sulphide, is oxidized to sulphur trioxide (SO3), which combines with water to form sulphuric acid (H2SO4), leading to acid rain.
Atmospheric sulphur, largely in the form of sulphuric acid, is removed by two general processes: rainout, which includes all processes within clouds that result in removal; and washout, which is the removal by precipitation below the clouds. Depending on the amount of the various sulphur compounds available to form the sulphuric acid, the degree of acidity can be strong enough to ap-proximate that of battery acid. Atmospheric inputs of sulphuric acid provide the dominant source of both hydrogen ions (H+) for cation replacement.
· Sulphur in Sediments
The sedimentary aspect of the cycle involves the precipitation of sulphur in the presence of such cations as iron (Fe) and calcium (Ca) as highly insoluble ferrous sulphide (FeS) and ferric sulphide (Fe2S3, pyrite) or relatively insoluble calcium sulphate (CaSO4).
The oxidation of sulphides in marine sediments is a key process, though poorly understood.
Salinity also Caused due to excessive irrigation in dry conditions which promotes capillary action
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/nitrogen-cyclesulphur-cycle-hydrological-cycle

8. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Ans: b
Exp: Sustainable development has been the overarching goal of the international community since the UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) in 1992. Amongst numerous commitments, the Conference called upon governments to develop national strategies for sustainable development, incorporating policy measures outlined in the Rio Declaration and Agenda 21. Despite the efforts of many governments around the world to implement such strategies as well as international cooperation to support national governments, there are continuing concerns over global economic and environmental developments in many countries. These have been intensified by recent prolonged global energy, food and financial crises, and underscored by continued warnings from global scientists that society is transgressing a number of planetary boundaries or ecological limits.
With governments today seeking effective ways to lead their nations out of these related crises whilst also taking into account these planetary boundaries, green economy (in its various forms) has been proposed as a means for catalysing renewed national policy development and international cooperation and support for sustainable development. The concept has received significant international attention over the past few years as a tool to address the 2008 financial crisis as well as one of two themes for the 2012 UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20). This has resulted in a rapidly expanding literature including new publications on green economy from a variety of influential international organisations, national governments, think tanks, experts, non-government organisations and others.
Governments agreed at Rio+20 to frame the green economy as an important tool for sustainable development; one that is inclusive and can drive economic growth, employment, and poverty eradication, whilst maintaining the healthy functioning of the Earth’s ecosystems. Importantly, the outcome document also recognises that capacity building, information exchange and experience sharing will be critical for implementing green economy policies.
Recent initiatives on green economy or green growth by the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP), the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA), the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), the International Labour Organisation (ILO), the World Bank, the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI), the Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), the Green Growth Knowledge Platform (GGKP) the Green Economy Coalition

9. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: d
Exp: 1 Manufacturing applications
1.1 Cloud-based additive manufacturing
1.2 Mass customization
1.3 Rapid manufacturing
1.4 Rapid prototyping
1.5 Research
1.6 Food
1.7 Agile tooling
2 Medical applications
2.1 Bio-printing
2.2 Medical devices
2.3 Pills
3 Industrial applications
3.1 Apparel
3.2 Industrial art and jewelry
3.3 Automotive industry
3.4 Construction
3.5 Firearms
3.6 Computers and robots
3.7 Soft sensors and actuators
3.8 Space
4 Sociocultural applications
4.1 Art and jewelry
4.2 3D selfies
4.3 Communication
4.4 Domestic use
4.5 Education and research
4.6 Environmental use
4.7 Cultural heritage
4.8 Specialty materials

10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: According to scientists from Goa based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), India’s only live volcano at Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar has become active again
After lying dormant for 150 years, Barren Island volcano had erupted in 1991 and since then it is showing sporadic activity. Now it is erupting in small episodes of five to 10 minutes.

11. Why is a called Prosopis julifloru often mentioned is news?
a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
c) Its extracts is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
d) None of the above
Ans: b
Exp: Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an exotic tree, is one of the top invaders in India. A native of South and Central America, it was introduced in India to meet the fuel wood requirement of the rural poor and to restore degraded lands. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

12. Consider the following statements
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: Coral reefs are found in circum-tropical shallow tropical waters along the shores of islands and continents. The reef substrate is mainly composed of calcium carbonate from living and dead corals. Many other invertebrates, vertebrates, and plants live in close association to the corals, with tight resource coupling and recycling, allowing coral reefs to have extremely high productivity and biodiversity, such that they are referred to as ‘the Tropical Rainforests of the Oceans’.
Coral reefs are believed by many to have the highest biodiversity of any ecosystem on the planet—even more than a tropical rainforest.
Major Regions of Coral Reef Development
Globally, three major regions of coral reef development are generally recognized, each with a somewhat distinctive biota. These are:
(1) The Indo-Pacific – Includes most of the Indian Ocean (excluding the Red Sea), and the western Pacific.
(2) The Wider Caribbean(tropical western Atlantic) – Includes Florida, The Bahamas, Caribbean Sea proper, and coastal waters off northeastern S. America.
(3) The Red Sea
Thus Australia, Indonesia and Philippines cover one-third area.
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/estuaries-mangroves-coral-polyps

13. “momentum for change : climate neutral now” is an initiative launched by
a) The intergovernmental panel on climate change
b) The UNEP secretariat
c) The UNFCCC secretariat
d) The world meteorological organization
Ans: c
Exp: Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now brings together two of the secretariat’s flagship activities that recognize leadership in tackling climate change by non-Party stakeholders.
It has been launched by the (UNFCCC) United Nations Climate Change secretariat has launched a new initiative that will showcase efforts by individuals, companies and governments that are achieving real results in transitioning to climate neutrality.

14. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit college at Banaras William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa Warren Hastings
3. Fort William college Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans: b
Exp: Sanskrit college: Jonathan Duncan
Calcutta madarsa: Warren Hastings
Fort William College: Richard Wellesly
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/1857-revoltevolution-of-education-of-press-administration-before-1857

15.Consider the following pairs :
Region sometimes mentioned in news country
1. Catalonia – Spain
2. Crimea – Hungary
3. Mindanao – Philippines
4. Oromia – Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: c
Exp: Catalonia: Spain
Crimea: Ukraine
Mindanao: Philippines
Oromia: Ethiopia

16. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.
b) The money which a creditors is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
c) The bank money in the forms of cheque, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.
Ans: b
Exp: There is no complete definition in the options, so we need to choose most suitable, which is b, as legal tender is acceptable by law, which no one can refuse to accept.
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/money-inflation

17. if a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, then
a) The opportunity cost is zero.
b) The opportunity cost is ignored.
c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
d) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the government.
Ans: d
Exp: Opportunity cost is the cost which could have been earned from second best investment option. For free goods, the opportunity cost is zero for the person consuming it, however, it is not so for the provider of that good. The choice of spending on various alternatives is available with government and not tax payers. Thus, it is transferred to government.

18. Increase in absolute and per capital real GNP do not connote a higher level of economics development, if
a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agriculture output.
b) Agriculture output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
d) Imports grow faster than exports.
Ans: c
Exp: If gains of increase in per capita income are grabbed by a small section of society, then economic growth will not lead to economic development. For example – Libya

19. Consider the following statements.
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables.
a) Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
b) Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
c) Accumulation of tangible wealth.
d) Accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) 1 and 2
2) 2 only
3) 2 and 4
4) 1,3 and 4
Ans: c
Exp: While 2 is very meaning of human capital accumulation, 4 also increases due to 2 only, for example, patents, copyrights, etc.

20.Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
a) Weak administrative machinery
b) Illiteracy
c) High population density
d) High capital output ratio
Ans: d
Exp: If a country has poor technology and low efficiency, even high savings, will lead to low economic growth.

21. After the Santhal uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1) The territories called ‘santhal paraganas were created.
2) It became illegal for a santhal to transfer land to a non-santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Exp:. Santhal Pargana District was created in 1885 after partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum. An important reason behind the creation of Santhal Pargana was Santhal Mutiny in 1854-55.

22.Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India on the 19th century was the
a) Increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
b) Growth in the number of Indian owned factories.
c) Commercialization of Indian agriculture.
d) Rapid increase in the urban population
Ans: c
Exp: Commercialization of Indian agriculture started post 1813 when the industrial revolution in England gained pace.
Source: http://iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/administration-before-1857-economic-policies

23. If the president of India exercise his power as provided under article 356 of the constitutional in respect of a particular state, then
a) The assemble of the state is automatically dissolved.
b) The powers of the legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
d) The president can make laws relating to that state.
Ans: d
Exp: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a State the Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or to any other authority specified by him in this regard.
Source: http://iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/emergency

24.Consider the following pairs :
Crafts Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra
3. Uppada jamdani saris Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: Sujni Embroidery is of Bihar
Uppada Jamdani Saris is of Andhra Pradesh



25. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1) Mobile phone operations
2) Banking operations
3) Controlling the power grids
Select of the correct answer using the code below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: It is a global navigation satellite system that provides geolocationand time information to a GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites.
Many civilian applications use one or more of GPS’s three basic components: absolute location, relative movement, and time transfer.
• Agriculture
• Astronomy
• Automated vehicle
• Cartography
• Cellular telephony.
• Clock synchronization
• Disaster relief/emergency services
• Radio occultation for weather and atmospheric science applications.
• Fleet tracking: used to identify, locate and maintain contact reports with one or more fleet vehicles in real-time.
• Geofencing
• Geotagging
• GPS aircraft tracking
• GPS for mining
• GPS data mining.
• Navigation: navigators value digitally precise velocity and orientation measurements.
• Surveying: surveyors use absolute locations to make maps and determine property boundaries.

26. Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India. The State governments do not issue any treasury bills. Interest on the treasury bills is determined by market forces.
Treasury bills, or T-bills, are short-term debt instruments issued by the U.S Treasury. T-bills are issued for a term of one year of less. T-bills are considered the world’s safest debt as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government.
Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/regulatory-bodies
http://iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/money-market-capital-marketinsurance

27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: The Earth’s Magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. This has been proved through Sea-Floor spreading.
When Earth was created there was no oxygen in the atmosphere. Oxygen makes up about one-fifth the volume of Earth’¬s atmosphere today and is a central element of life as we know it. But that wasn’¬t always the case. Oxygen, although always present in compounds in Earth’¬s interior, atmosphere, and oceans, did not begin to accumulate in the atmosphere as oxygen gas (O2) until well into the planet’¬s history.
Carbon dioxide, water vapor, and methane played an important role in Earth’¬s subsequent development.
By 2.7 billion years ago, a new kind of life had established itself: photosynthetic microbes called cyanobacteria, which were capable of using the Sun’¬s energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into food with oxygen gas as a waste product. They lived in shallow seas, protected from full exposure to the Sun’¬s harmful radiation.
These organisms became so abundant that by 2.4 billion years ago the free oxygen they produced began to accumulate in the atmosphere.
http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/other-geographical-facts
http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/basic-theoriesinterior-of-earthrocks
28. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Ans: c
Exp: Wannacry, Petya and EternalBlue are relsted to cyber attacks. These are form of Ransonware.
Source: http://iasscore.in/ias-prelims/wannacry-malware
29. With reference to the circumstances in India agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: c
Exp: Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption of the soil’s structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the types of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture share three core principles. These include:
o maintenance of permanent or semi-permanent soil cover (using either a previous crop residue or specifically growing a cover crop for this purpose);
o minimum soil disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed into the ground) ;
o regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;
Conservation Agriculture also uses or promotes where possible or needed various management practices listed below:
o utilization of green manures/cover crops (GMCC’s) to produce the residue cover;
o no burning of crop residues;
o integrated disease and pest management;
o controlled/limited human and mechanical traffic over agricultural soils.
30. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Ans: d
Exp: Earth is currently in the midst of what is being considered the 6th great mass extinction, or the Holocene extinction, or sometimes the Anthropocene extinction.
An increasing number of species is disappearing from the face of the earth due to the human activities. This man-made mass extinction represents a very severe depletion of biodiversity, particularly because it is occurring within a short period of time.
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/types-of-species

31. Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
Ans: b
Exp: The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats. The election led to the formation of first democratically elected communist government in India
The Government of India took control of the Imperial Bank of India in 1955, with Reserve Bank of India (India’s central bank) taking a 60% stake, renaming it the State Bank of India.
In 1953-Air India was nationalized
On December 19, 1961, Goa officially became part of India

32. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statements?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Ans: c
Exp: Article 21- Protection of life and personal liberty No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
Source: http://www.iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/basic-fundamental-rights-for-citizens-and-aliens-military-laws


33. Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmetic
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans: b
Exp:
The MSP is announced by the Government of India for 25 crops currently at the beginning of each season viz. Rabi and Kharif. Following are the 25 crops covered by MSP:
Kharif Crops Rabi Crops
1 Paddy 15 Wheat
2 Jowar 16 Barley
3 Bajra 17 Gram
4 Maize 18 Masur (Lentil)
5 Ragi 19 Rapeseed/Mustard
6 Arhar(Tur) 20 Safflower
7 Moong 21 Toria
8 Urad Other Crops
9 Cotton 22 Copra
10 Groundnut 23 De-Husked Coconut
11 Sunflower Seed 24 Jute
12 Soyabeen Black 25 Sugarcane
13 Sesamum
14 Nigerseed


34. In which one of the following States in Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Ans: a
Exp: Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (862 km2, 92°36′ – 93°09’E and 26°54 – 27°16’N) lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh.

35. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans: a
Exp: PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
Satellites launched by GSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is about twice the capability of GSLV Mk II.
The two strap-on motors of GSLV Mk III are located on either side of its core liquid booster. Designated as ‘S200’, each carries 205 tons of composite solid propellant and their ignition results in vehicle lift -off . S200s function for 140 seconds. During strap-ons functioning phase, the two clustered Vikas liquid Engines of L110 liquid core booster will ignite 114 sec after lift -off to further augment the thrust of the vehicle. These two engines continue to function after the separation of the strap-ons at about 140 seconds after lift -off.
Source: http://iasscore.in/upsc-prelims/types-of-satellites-indian-space-programme

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